Paul, Romans, Chapter 3, Page 1 of 6 Lecture 188. Objections to the Thesis about Jews. Rom 3:1-9 Diatribe Most Scholars agree that Paul is engaging in a "diatribe" with an imaginary partner. Scholars disagree with who is asking the questions, and who is answering them. Is Paul asking most of the questions, i.e., are they "rhetorical questions" with obvious answers? I am following Matera: The imaginary Jewish partner is asking; Paul is answering. But this is not clear, as the question marks in my outline show. Translation of the Greek with Outline 3:1 So what [ ] the advantage of the Jew? Question 1 to Paul Or what is the value of circumcision? Question 2 to Paul 2 Much in every respect! Paul's Answer First, on the one hand, they-have-been-entrusted-with the oracles of God 3 For what if some have-disbelieved? Question 3 (to Paul?) Their disbelief does not invalidate the fidelity of God, does it? Question 4 (to Paul?) 4 May it not be! Exclamation But let God be true, and every human, a liar! Exclamation, See Psalm 116:11 Just as it is written So that you-may-be-justified in your words Psalm 51:4 and you-will-be-victorious in being judged 5 If our unrighteousness demonstrates the righteousness of God intro phrase what shall we say? Question 5 (to Paul?) God, bringing-wrath-upon [people] is not unjust, is he? Question 6 (to Paul?) 6 May it not be! Since [] how will God judge the world? Question 7 7 And if the truth of God by my lie has abounded unto his glory why am I still being judged as a sinner? Question 7, more concretely 8 And -- Paul adds a question of his own? just as we are slandered and just a some claim that we say "Should we not do evil, in order that good may come?" -- Question 8 Their condemnation is deserved! 9 So what? Are we [Jews] at a disadvantage? Question 9 Not at all! For we have-previously-charged that all both Jews and Greeks are under Sin. 1, So what...? Ti oun...? This opens a frame. The ti oun in verse 9 closes the frame, marking this off as a literary unit What Is at Stake? This is not just a "minor point of theology Is God faithful or not? Can God's promises be trusted? If the OT promises cannot be trusted, why should anyone believe new promises? 2, First on the one hand... One expects: "Second, on the other hand..." Paul gets distracted. It never comes. In chapter 9 he will finally get around to elaborating the privileges of the Jews ("the other hand")
Paul, Romans, Chapter 3, Page 2 of 6 Oracles of God. Various Interpretations The Torah, books of Moses Prophetic books Oracles specifically referring to the Messiah The whole OT (Fitzmyer, Matera, Cranfield) Word Plays on "faith / belief" word group: the root is pist- in Greek 2, They-have-been-entrusted-with, episteuthēsan, a form of the verb pisteuō 3, some "have-disbelieved" ēpistēsan, a form of the verb apisteō their "disbelief / lack of faith" apistia (the first alpha is "privative" = "un-" in Latin/English) the fidelity of God / God's "fidelity" (pistin, a form of the noun pistis) The fidelity of God, pistis tou theou This is one of the arguments for translating pistis (tou) Christou as the "fidelity of Christ" instead of "faith in Christ" (more later) May it not be! mē genoito A strong denial. Many translations render this: "God forbid!" This is a "dynamic equivalent" because neither word means "God" or "forbid." [compare auf Widersehen] In the LXX it translates halîlah lî... "far be it from me..." This is usually continued with "to do X." According to Fitzmyer, Paul & Epictetus are the only Greek writers who use the phrase "absolutely." [unintentionally left out of lecture] 4, Let God be "true." True mainly in the sense of "reliable," but also that his information is "accurate" The righteousness of God A quality of God himself (so most Catholics); A quality that God "imputes" to humans (many Protestants) I think the Catholics have the better argument in this passage -- but I am not "objective!" Since [ ] how will God judge the world? Elliptical. We have to supply, [if it is true that God would be unrighteous to bring wrath upon humanity] The presumption that God will judge the world was an "unquestionable axiom" for first century Jews For 21st century humans, the main question is more basic: whether or not there is in fact a God 9. Are-we-at-a-disadvantage? proechometha 1 1) Are we making excuses (a true middle voice) 2) Do we have an advantage? Are we better off? [NRSV, most modern translations] Do we surpass them? [Vulgate] (middle with an "active" sense) 3) Are we at a disadvantage [Fitzmyer, Jewett, Matera] (passive voice) 10 Answer: Not at all! Cranfield correctly points out that the Greek literally says, "Not altogether" This would be a qualified denial, not an absolute denial. Most translations render it as an absolute denial. And the ambiguity of the answer is present whether the previous question is translated as #2 or # 3 (above)! Paul's Main Point. All are "under Sin." This is the first mention of "Sin" in Romans. Paul views it generally in Romans not as a "bad act" but as an enslaving power. Paul often personifies "Sin" in Romans. This is why I have capitalized it. 1 All commentators discuss this. I am getting this summary from Matera, Romans, 83.
Paul, Romans, Chapter 3, Page 3 of 6 Lecture 189. All, Jews & Greeks, Are Sinners. Rom 3:10-20 Closely Connected to What Precedes. Scriptural support for assertion that all (Jews & Greeks) are sinners Translation of the Greek with Outline 10 Just as it is written Support for previous statement There is not a righteous person, not even one Ps 14:1b; Eccl 7:20 11 There is not the understanding person Ps 14:2; Ps 52:3b modified there is not the one seeking God. Ps 14:2b; Ps 52:3b modified 12 All have turned aside; together they have-become-depraved; Ps 14:3; Ps 53:4 LXX word-for-word there is not the one doing kindness; " " [there is not] even one " " 13 an open grave, their throat; " with their tongues they deceive " venom of asps, under their lips " Ps 104:4 (Gk. 139:4) 14 whose mouth is full of cursing and bitterness. " Ps 10:7 (Gk. 9:28) 15 quick their feed to shed blood! " Isa 59:7; Prov 1:16 16 destruction and distress in their paths! " Isa 59:7 17 and the path of peace they have not known. " Isa 59:8 18 there is not fear of God before their eyes " Ps 36:1 19 We know that whatsoever-things the law says, it speaks to those in the law in order that every mouth may be stopped-up and the whole cosmos might become under-judgment to God 20 Therefore from works of the law no flesh will not be justified before him for through the law [ ] recognition of sin. A catena of scripture quotes. Mostly Ps. 14:1-3, literally quoted from LXX 2 -- some verses slightly modified -- allusions to other scriptures. Where did Paul Get This? Scholars wonder if Paul put them together just for Romans. Or is he drawing on some of his "sermon material?" Ultimately, does this come from an early Christian "testimonia"? Testimonia Ancient Jewish literary form, found at Qumran. Set of scriptures to explain why you are right & opponents are wrong! Imagine a Catholic "pamphlet" OR an Evangelical "pamphlet" Refrain: "There Is Not" 5 or 6 times. Body Parts: lips, tongue, etc. The whole human being is involved in the sinfulness. 20, Works of the Law. Big debate! Fitzmyer: This refers to all the commandments in the Law. (Later rabbinic tradition will number them at 613). James Dunn: those by which Jews define themselves as separate from others: circumcision, diet, no idol-worship V, 20, Psalm 143:2 is changed! Greek OT. For no living-one will be justified before you. (Every Jew would agree!) Paul's Greek For from works of the law no flesh will be justified before him. (Most Jews would not agree!) 2 I have given the Hebrew verse numbers, even when the Greek verse numbers differ.
Paul, Romans, Chapter 3, Page 4 of 6 Through the Law, Knowledge of Sin Paul will develop this thought later in the Epistle. The main idea is that the Law gives knowledge, but not power to obey! Lecture 190. Christ's Justification, Redemption, Expiation, is for All. Rom 3:21-31 I. Doctrinal Section: God s Gospel of Jesus Christ our Lord (1:16-11:36) 3 [Info only, not in lecture] A. Uprightness of God is Revealed as Justifying People through Faith (1:16-4:25) Theme: Gospel, God's Power for Salvation of All, Disclosing God's Uprightness (1:16-17, Lectures 177, 178) 1. Negative Explanation: All Humans Under God s Wrath (1:18-3:20) 2. Positive Explanation: God s Uprightness Manifested to Sinners through Faith (3:21-31) 3. Illustration from Law: Abraham Justified by Faith, not Deeds (4:1-25) B. Love of God Assures Salvation to Those Justified by Faith (chapters 5-8) C. Justification, Salvation through Faith Do Not Contradict OT Promises (chapters 9-11) Comment on Outline The Main Theme is that God's salvation is for ALL. This has been negatively explained: ALL are under God's wrath In 3:21-31 we have a positive explanation of the main theme. This will be followed by the concrete example of Abraham's faith in chapter 4. Translation of the Greek with Comments In this lecture, I did not have time to write out my translation ahead of time, so I was "winging it." I had read the commentators (Cranfield, Fitzmyer, Matera) the previous night, so I gave the comments I remembered. Verse 21 But now, apart from [the] Law the righteousness of God has been manifested being born witness to by the Law and the Prophets, But Now. A new part in Paul's argument; a new phase in salvation history. Law & Prophets = whole of scripture Verse 22 namely [the] righteousness of God through the fidelity of Jesus Christ, for all those who believe; for there is no distinction. Through the Fidelity of Jesus Christ Most translations will say "through faith in Jesus Christ." Fitzmyer, Dunn, Cranfield & most traditional commentators understand it this way. Matera, Luke Timothy Johnson, Hays -- and myself! -- take this minority opinion, which seems to be growing. Almost all English translations say "through faith in Jesus Christ." The NET renders it "fidelity of Jesus Christ." Righteousness of God = God's saving activity, fulfilling his role as covenant partner. N.T. Wright, Anglican scholar. Unto all those who believe Further argument that the previous phrase does not mean "faith in Jesus Christ" If that is what it had meant, there would be no reason to say "for all those who believe" at this point! 3 Taken from Fitzmyer's outline from his Anchor Bible commentary on Romans..
Paul, Romans, Chapter 3, Page 5 of 6 Verse 23 For all have sinned, and fallen short of the glory of God. (Possible translation: "opinion" of God.") Verse 24 Being justified freely (as a gift) by his grace, through the redemption in/ by Jesus Christ, By his grace = "Freely." Why the repetition? Paul is probably using early Christian catechetical material, and adapting it by adding his favorite phrases. Redemption, Buying Back To whom was the price paid? To God? (makes God into a monster). To Satan? (what right does he have to it?) A metaphor. Imagine the experience of a captive who has been ransomed or a slave who has been freed! Verse 25 whom God set forth as an expiation through fidelity, in his name, as a demonstration of his righteousness through the "overlooking" of sins which-happened previously Expiation, hilastērion In the Greek OT it refers to the cover of the Ark of the Covenant where blood was sprinkled, the "mercy seat" Not "propitiation," appeasing an angry God. Expiation = "wiping something out. Through Fidelity 1) either through God's own fidelity, or the fidelity of Jesus Christ -- who "embodies" God's fidelity. 2) Some translations: through faith -- thinking it refers to the faith that Christians have in God or in Jesus. I follow the first interpretation. Demonstration of his righteousness. I.e., demonstration of his saving activity. Verse 26 with the forbearance of God, toward the demonstration of his righteousness in the present time, so that he would be just (dikaios) and justifying (dikaiounta) the [one-who-has-been-justified? (dikaiothenta)] from the fidelity of Jesus Vague Phrase: "the [one] from the fidelity of Jesus" Many translations render this "the one who believes in Jesus." I do not see the justification for this translation. Matera: if faith in Jesus is overstressed, it can become as if it were a "work" done by humans. "The fidelity of Jesus" makes it obvious that the primary actor is God, not humanity! Verse 27 Where, therefore, the boast? It has been locked out. Through what law? Of works! No! But through the law of faith? Law, nomos. Can have several meanings. Fitzmyer thinks the best translation here is "principle." Is the "law of faith" an oxymoron (to make readers think)? Or is it a law unique to Christians? Verse 28 For we reckon a person to justified by fidelity apart from works of [the] law. We? All believers? Paul and his dialogue partner in the diatribe? An "editorial" we? Verse 29 Or, of Jews God only? Also of Gentiles, isn't he? Yes, also of Gentiles!
Paul, Romans, Chapter 3, Page 6 of 6 Verse 30 Since indeed God is one, who will justify circumcision from faith / fidelity and foreskin through faith / fidelity. God is one. Shema, "Hear, O Israel, the LORD our God, the LORD is one. Circumcision & Foreskin = The Circumcised Person & the Uncircumcised Person Paul's Argument Since God is really "one" he cannot have one method of justifying for one group, and another for another group. Many Jews would not agree with this argument. From Fidelity & Through Fidelity. Just literary, rhetorical variety. Some translations read "from faith... through faith." The Greek word pistis has both meanings. Almost like poetic parallelism, where both parts have to be taken with both parts. I.e., The circumcised is justified from & through fidelity and the uncircumcised is justified from & through fidelity The "fidelity" would not be the person's belief in God, but rather the fidelity of Jesus to God. 4 Both? Some commentators say that the "fidelity of Jesus" is both! I.e., both our faith in Jesus and the faith / fidelity of Jesus toward God. Fitzmyer strongly disagrees. He says this interpretation just shows the commentator cannot make up his mind! Verse 31 Therefore do we invalidate the law through fidelity? May it not be! Rather, we confirm the law. Explanation: Paul asserts that the Law, correctly understood, is confirmed by his teaching on faith/ fidelity. 4 I find this minority opinion convincing. However, most commentators think it refers to the faith of Christians.