Romans 3:1-8 περισσός sahs ὠφέλεια feh

Transcription

1 Romans Chapter 3 Romans 3:1-8 Then what advantage has the Jew? Or what is the benefit of circumcision? Great in every respect. First of all, that they were entrusted with the oracles of God. What then? If some did not believe, their unbelief will not nullify the faithfulness of God, will it? May it never be! Rather, let God be found true, though every man be found a liar, as it is written, "THAT YOU MAY BE JUSTIFIED IN YOUR WORDS, AND PREVAIL WHEN YOU ARE JUDGED." But if our unrighteousness demonstrates the righteousness of God, what shall we say? The God who inflicts wrath is not unrighteous, is He? (I am speaking in human terms.) May it never be! For otherwise, how will God judge the world? But if through my lie the truth of God abounded to His glory, why am I also still being judged as a sinner? And why not say (as we are slanderously reported and as some claim that we say), "Let us do evil that good may come"? Their condemnation is just. After the diatribe of the previous section, Paul then presents the question of why the distinction? Why did God have a chosen people? What advantage did they have? The answer is provided in verse 2, but we have to deal with it in the manner that the reader would understand and its significance. The question Paul asks reflects back to verses 12 through 29 of chapter 2. Paul clearly states that all have sinned and that having the Law does not include special treatment from God. The last few verses indicate that a Gentile, one without the Law or circumcision, can fulfill the intent of the Law by understanding the need for and believing in the Messiah. There is no partiality with God in regards to the spiritual salvation of the individual. The question in verse 1 has two parts but is only one question. The reason we know this is there is only one answer. Being a Jew and having circumcision is nearly synonymous but has a difference. This is, as we have seen, the function of the people of the covenant (Moses) as well as the people of the promise (Abraham). In the first question you have the word advantage. περισσός perissos (peh- rihs- sahs ) this word is typically understood in two ways. The first is qualitative, superior. The next is quantitative, excessive or abundance. (Matthew 5:36-37 quantity, more than; Matthew 5:43-47 quality, better than; John 10:10 quality, may have life and may have superior ). In the text in Romans the question is what is the superiority of the Jew? Is it better to have been a Jew (especially in this time and culture)? The next question is a restatement of the question with different emphasis, but the benefit is that it helps us understand the word advantage because it is used in tandem. ὠφέλεια ōpheleia (oh- feh - lay- ah) is the word for advantage, profit, benefit. A cognate of this word is used in James 2:14. This is not a word for spiritual salvation or inherent spiritual favoritism. Rather this is an advantageous position. The Jew is in a

2 culture and society that was supposed to provide a distinct advantage to believing in The Lord and Messiah. The first church was not only Jewish in nature, it was all Jewish in number (Acts 2:41; 4:4; 4:32-35; 6:1,7). Taking all this into account, before the stoning of Stephen, there were anywhere between thousand added to their number. Some of the estimates of the population of Israel (not counting the Diaspora) place the number at about 700,000 in Israel (4.2 mil worldwide). Estimates of converts to Christianity by AD 70 are about 30-40% (200, ,000; Acts 21:20- myriad). This is not counting the Diaspora. The point is that there was a larger number of Jews than all other nationalities combined who believed by AD 70. Verse 2 gives the specific answer to the question. The first answer is general, and then Paul moves toward specific answers. Is it better to be a Jew is there a benefit to be of the Promise? Great in every respect. Great is πολύς polus (pah- loos) and, in the singular neuter, it indicates size, degree, or intensity and means much as in the greatest degree possible. Then pas τρόπος tropos (trah - pahs) simply means every way, each manner. Together the advantage the Jew has (time and culture given) is the highest in any form in every way; in anything imaginable, the Jew has an advantage over the Gentile. Our recent history indicates that we are born with an advantage over the child born into Islam, Hinduism, etc. The child immediately learns about Jesus, the Bible, and the need of salvation. This advantage is nothing in comparison to the Jewish advantage, especially in the 1 st century culture. There is no indication that this advantage is null in this dispensation. Percentage I would opine there are more Jews who believe in Jesus than Gentiles. The next word in the verse is πρῶτον proton (pro - tahn) and means first, primarily, or above all (degree). This is not a list, so this is degree. The primary and most important and the only point needed is the fact that the Jews were entrusted with the oracles of God. They were entrusted with is one word πιστεύω pisteuō (pih- stoo - oh) which is the word believe. The nuance of this word is when it is used in the passive voice. There are 63 grammatical forms of pisteuō in the New Testament. Five of these forms are in the passive voice (1 st Corinthians 9:17; Galatians 2:7; 1 st Thessalonians 2:4; 1 st Timothy 1:16). God being persuaded that the one given the information will perform the mission assigned to them. The Jews were assigned, entrusted by God with His oracles. λόγιον logion (lah - ghee- ahn) is a form of logos that has been altered to convey a smaller degree or size. In the Greek Testament, this denotes the sayings of God, a brief, the Reader s Digest Version of the Word of God. This is not to downplay the importance of what they received, but we now have the completed version of the Word of God. They were entrusted with the shadow, the Word of God that was looking forward to the Son (Hebrews 1:1-4). This word is always in respect to the Jewish recipients (Acts 7:38; Hebrews 5:12; 1 st Peter 4:11). This does not lessen the

3 importance but denotes a lack of completeness, not a full revelation. λόγιον logion (lah - ghee- ahn) in the Hebrew Septuagint is not diminished but is considered the Word of God in part (Isaiah 28:13). This is also used for a particular word or prophecy; this is used for Balaam in Numbers (Numbers 24:4,16). The first two verses indicate that the Hebrews of the day had a distinct advantage over the Gentiles. But what has occurred in history is that the majority of those with this advantage didn t believe the truth. The next question Paul asks relates to a common logical fallacy considering this fact. If the Jews do not believe in Jesus (for the most part), what does this say about God? Verse 3 then comes in with the perceived question; Paul preemptively asks and answers it. Logic dictates the question. Does their disbelief indicate God misplaced His confidence? This question strikes at the heart of the sovereignty of God. Did God make a mistake by entrusting His Word with the Jews? This seems like a silly question, but the human logical process indicates the proof is in the pudding. In analyzing the verse, there is a definite correlation from verse 2 through verse 3. God entrusted the Word but some disbelieved. The question is also a conditional clause. The if is εἰ ei with an aorist indicative verb. This indicates a negative response to the premise. If some did not believe (and they did not). Remember that a double negative in Greek does not indicate a positive; it adds emphasis. There is a personal pronoun some, which indicates a part of the whole. The verb is ἀπιστέω apisteō (ah- pih- steh - oh) which means that they are un- persuaded, not believing. There is an obvious correlation to 2 Timothy 2:13; if we are faithless, is actually if we disbelieve. Their unbelief is literally translated not the unfaithfulness of theirs. ἀπιστία apistia (ah- pih- stee - ah) is the alpha- negative of faith. Now faith is doctrine that has been believed; the negation reflects the fact that they did not believe the doctrines presented (doctrine they disbelieved). The question then is God s confidence (the fact that he entrusted His Word) in the Jews nullified? Did God improperly choose the Hebrew Nation? The phrase is in the apodosis (ah- pah- dih- sis), includes the verb καταργέω katargeō (kah- tahr- geh - oh), which is an emphatic form of being idle or useless. This usually is understood as brought to naught, fail, destroyed, abolish, nullify The lesson of the faithfulness of God is not wrong, but the direct context of this passage indicates God making a mistake in regards to His giving of His Word to the Jews. Verse 4 provides the obvious answer: me ginomai! Very emphatic, there is not a chance. The next word is ginomai again but in the present imperative. With the imperative it indicates that there is a desire of the

4 statement to be validated or understood (Acts 21:4; Romans 12:16). The verse states let God be true. The desire of Paul is to validate God regardless of man. There is no rather or though. Paul s argument is to the effect that we cannot be the judges of God. Paul then quotes Hebrew Scripture to ensure this is understood. Psalm 51:4 You are righteous in your speaking and blameless in your judging Romans 3:4 You are justified in your words and prevail in the your judge (infinitive) There is nothing in the language to indicate that God is being judged, rather in His judgment, in His words, in His actions, He is the just One; He is the righteous One. The context of Psalm 51 is a contrite David recognizing that God is the only one who is justified, and the Justifier of those not justified. Verse 5 Here we have another preemptive question and answer. This question again is in the form of a conditional clause If our unrighteousness demonstrates God s righteousness. This is the premise and is in the first class conditional. In this form this is understood as true. But how is this true, how does our unrighteousness demonstrate God s righteousness. The verb συνίστημι sunistēmi (soon- ihs- tay- mee) is a compound word that means to place together with, unite. With an object or person it means to stand by, commend, consists with. It does not mean to show; it means is in existence with (Romans 5:8; 16:1). Therefore, we do not demonstrate God s righteousness with our unrighteousness; rather they co- exist. They are not in opposition, because God s righteousness does not depend upon the action or belief of man. Even if every man disbelieved, God is still true. God who stands with the unrighteous does not become unrighteous, does He? If at anytime God is not righteous then He would have no right to inflict (bring about) wrath. Paul then states that he is speaking in human terms. Simply, he is using logic to make his point. It is not necessary for him to do so, but he desires that the reader understands the nature of God. Verse 6 answers the question, but it has already been answered. The same phrase me ginomai is used again. And then restates the findings in verse 5. If God is unrighteous then he has no basis for judgment. Verse 7 reflects back to verse 4. This is a second- class conditional statement. We need to consider the word lie for a moment. The root word for both verse 4 and verse 7 is ψεύδομαι pseudomai (psoo - dah- my), which has in its understanding speaking false, to err, to pretend, to be false, to be wrong. If the truth of God is in contrast then this is not to speak what you know to be false but to be false by nature. So in verse 7, Paul states that in my falseness God s truth cannot abound. It is not about Paul, it is not about man; God s truth is non- conditional.

5 Abounds is περισσεύω perisseuō (peh- ree- soo- oh) and means to exceed, to abound. The question is negated by the form of the condition. God s truth is not made greater based upon man being false. Otherwise verse 8 would be true. This nonsensical argument does not even get a response from Paul. The question in verse 8 is rhetorical and needs no answer because the accusation is ridiculous. The historical claim of teaching the grace of God is that in teaching grace we advocate sin. The argument shows that the opponent is seeing the offer from human arrogance and from the sinful state of man. Salvation is God to man, not man to God. The point of salvation by grace is not to tell people to do whatever they want; it is to point to the truth. This is the only way a man may get the righteousness of God, by saying there is nothing you can do to get it is not the same thing as go on sinning so that grace may abound. Romans 6:1-4 What shall we say then? Are we to continue in sin so that grace may increase? May it never be! How shall we who died to sin still live in it? Or do you not know that all of us who have been baptized into Christ Jesus have been baptized into His death? Therefore we have been buried with Him through baptism into death, so that as Christ was raised from the dead through the glory of the Father, so we too might walk in newness of life.